Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

I listened to Kamala Harris speech she gave in North Carolina. I support 100% of what she said. I am more and more in favor of a Kamala Harris presidency if Biden becomes unable to be our president! Do you find yourself supporting Kamala Harris now?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How can someone in your family purposely try to destroy your reputation?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What were the career paths of each member of "The Monkees" after the band disbanded? Did any of them have successful music careers?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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